Is it right?

ZamanH wrote: alsathik wrote: one of our muslim sister was raped by her father-in-law and she was forced to marry her father-in-law by the Islamic cleric in Uttar Pradash, India. Is it corrrect? Nope that is not correct. I wish I could have replied to you earlier. The fatwa by the local Muslim cleric ordered the victimised woman to live separately from her husband and five children, after being raped by her father-in-law. As far as I know, that judgement is islamically sound because a man is not supposed to have intercourse with women who had intercouse with their fathers or sons.

ZamanH, the judgment is not Islamically sound because the woman was married to the son and not the father.

"And marry not women whom your fathers married except what is past: it was shameful and odious an abominable custom indeed." (Sura 4, Ayat 22)

This man did not marry a woman whom his father had married.  He was married to her and his father raped her. 

"Prohibited to you (for marriage) are: your mother daughters sisters father's sisters mother's sisters; brother's daughters sister's daughters foster-mothers (who gave you suck) foster-sisters; your wives' mothers; your step-daughters under your guardianship born of your wives to whom ye have gone in no prohibition if ye have not gone in; (those who have been) wives of your sons proceeding from your loins; and two sisters in wedlock at one and the same time except for what is past; for Allah is Oft-Forgiving Most Merciful." (Sura 4, Ayat 23) 

And even if at the time of the rape, this woman had not still been married to the son, the father would be forbidden to marry her because it is forbid for a man to marry a woman that had been married to his son.

So, the act of making this woman leave her husband and marry the father is itself an unIslam act.

It is the father who should be punished for this horrible act against this woman.  In fact, he should receive a most horrible punishment for what he has done.  Not only has he violated this woman, he has violated his son as well.  But above all, he violated Allah's Laws.

PAZ, Khadija          ;           ;           ;       

Hi All

As this is a ladies forum, i may take an oppurtunity and ask as a married woman, what are the obligations of husband of sexual satisfaction towards a wife...does he need to sexually satisfy the wife needs and to the level where she is satisfied or its the utmost pleasure of the husband to what level he can have...

As a wife should i give him oral sex satisfaction which he asks me to and to what level should be done...as a married woman i am left at a high end dry up during the intercourse very frequently as he is done with his pleasure leaving me high...in such cases which is almost every time can i take some help of a maid to help me to take me to the level of satisfaction by the help of a toy or masturabation...what can be done and should be done as wife...he reaches the point where he cant have more and i m left high and dry.

Sarah

ZamanH wrote: As far as I know, that judgement is islamically sound because a man is not supposed to have intercourse with women who had intercouse with their fathers or sons.

Assalamu alaikum,

Rape is not intercourse - it is a crime of violence.  A man cannot have intercourse with women who had it with their fathers or sons through legal marriage.  Rape is an entirely different matter.

Peace, ummziba.