Need for Hadith

You may be interested in the Hadith evaluation resources and links available at 

www.geocities.com/asimiqbal2nd/hadeeth.htm and it also gives many Qur'anic Ayaat on the issue with clear highlighting, and clear arrangement according to subject.

Also check out about a dozen links including some books on this issue.

and on predictions etc... check out :

www.geocities.com/asimiqbal2nd

B.H. wrote: Now let�s look at my interpretation. The believers were supposed to abstain from relations from their spouses on the nights of Ramadan. Some were having trouble with this, and so that had relations anyway, ���All�h knows that you used to deceive yourselves�� Knowing they were wrong and in error, they turned to Allah to seek His forgiveness, ��so He turned to you (accepted your repentance) and forgave you�. As a mercy to these people, Allah then allowed believers to partake in relations and drink and eat freely without stipulation at night, �So now have sexual relations with them and seek that which All�h has ordained for you (offspring), and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night), then complete your Saum (fast) till the nightfall��. Since the Quran does not contain any details about this event, and there is no mention of any restrictions on the nights of Ramadan, one must ask the question: Who gave the order? The answer is, Allah gave the order, and the Prophet (saw) spoke it, and because it was not a part of the recited revelation, does not take away from its place in religious law. If not this scenario, then who, Abu Jahl, or Abu sufyan? Or maybe Zaid? Who? Who else would the Muslims have listened to? And is it the case that the believers had trouble being tempted with abstinence? And then had a hard time with intimacy and required Allah to step in and tell them that this was an act they should be doing? I believe you will find any reason to object, even if it requires funny interpretations, simply to save that one guiding principle your group follows blindly: Only in the Quran. That principle gives a great deal of freedom to interpret the Quran in a very loose way, and that is part of the secret of that �tautological like� feature.   Kindest Regards   You have stated your opinion and I have stated mine. I stand by the position that some of the early Muslims somehow got the false idea they could not have sex with their wives during the nights of Ramadan and Allah, seeing that they were cheating themselves, instructed the Prophet to tell them that it was permissable.

One may develope numerous interpretations, and you may feel free to maintain your position. The difference is that my position falls upon sound evidence from a contextual view, a common sense view (people tempted into abstinence?), and grammatical.

I believe you are only sticking to your position, even if you use words such as , "somehow", only to validate your groups erroneous beliefs, regardless of the cost. Just my observation.

Kindest regards

Now let�s look at my interpretation.

The believers were supposed to abstain from relations from their spouses on the nights of Ramadan. Some were having trouble with this, and so that had relations anyway, ���All�h knows that you used to deceive yourselves�� Knowing they were wrong and in error, they turned to Allah to seek His forgiveness, ��so He turned to you (accepted your repentance) and forgave you�. As a mercy to these people, Allah then allowed believers to partake in relations and drink and eat freely without stipulation at night, �So now have sexual relations with them and seek that which All�h has ordained for you (offspring), and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night), then complete your Saum (fast) till the nightfall��.

Since the Quran does not contain any details about this event, and there is no mention of any restrictions on the nights of Ramadan, one must ask the question: Who gave the order? The answer is, Allah gave the order, and the Prophet (saw) spoke it, and because it was not a part of the recited revelation, does not take away from its place in religious law. If not this scenario, then who, Abu Jahl, or Abu sufyan? Or maybe Zaid? Who? Who else would the Muslims have listened to? And is it the case that the believers had trouble being tempted with abstinence? And then had a hard time with intimacy and required Allah to step in and tell them that this was an act they should be doing?

I believe you will find any reason to object, even if it requires funny interpretations, simply to save that one guiding principle your group follows blindly: Only in the Quran. That principle gives a great deal of freedom to interpret the Quran in a very loose way, and that is part of the secret of that �tautological like� feature.  

Kindest Regards

You have stated your opinion and I have stated mine. I stand by the position that some of the early Muslims somehow got the false idea they could not have sex with their wives during the nights of Ramadan and Allah, seeing that they were cheating themselves, instructed the Prophet to tell them that it was permissable.

Finally, with your interpretation it becomes odd that Allah would forgive them of a sin, which really was not a sin up to until that point, and even at this time, abstinence for short periods is not necessarily a sin. The verse states they were sinning, and then states that �now it has become lawful (sexual relations)�. Doesn�t it make more sense that they were doing an act which was a sin and then He showed leniency and allowed the act, along with eating and drinking without stipulation, or does it make more sense to you, that they were practicing abstinence and it was becoming popular and so Allah intervened and forgave this, and then had to make sexual relations between spouses lawful in order to motivate them? They needed urging from Allah to procreate on the evenings of Ramadan? I find your interpretation to be a bit comical (the scenario it implies, and not derogatory to your position

I am having a problem following you here.  Allah was concerned that the people were cheating themselves by not having realtions with each other.  I infer that somehow they got the idea that husbands and wives could not have relations at night during Ramadan and it was a wrong idea.  If it was commanded by Allah why would he say they were cheating themselves?  No, Allah saw that they were following an idea that was not good and had the prophet tell them it was okay to have sex with your wives at night during Ramadan.