temporary marriage/mut`a

Chrysalis, I read the report but unfortunately there are contradictory ahadith on this issue. Read the following please:

Ali (as) said: The Mut'a is a mercy from Allah to his servants. If it were not for Umar forbidding it, no one would commit (the sin) of fornication except the wretched (Shaqi; an utmost wrong-doer)."

• Tafsir al-Kabir, by al-Tha'labi, under commentary of verse 4:24 of Quran;
• Tafsir al-Kabir, by Fakhr al-Razi, v3, p200, commentary of verse 4:24;

Umar said: Two types of Mut'a were (legal) during the time of the Prophet and I forbid them both, and I punish those who commit it. They are: Mut'a of pilgrimage and Mut'a of women.

• Tafsir al-Kabir, by al-Fakhr al-Razi, v3, p201 under verse 4:24
• Musnad Ahmad Ibn Hanbal, v1, p52

"al-Bukhari declared that Umar used to forbid people on Mut'a."

• Tafsir Ibn Kathir, v1, p233

I guess here is where a point of difference arises - like the majority of muslims I consider the Sahih Ahadith to be far more authentic and reliable compared to the ones you posted. Are those Shia sources? Sahih Bukhari, Muslim etc hold more authencity for me, and are undisputed by a vast majority of scolars.

None of them are Shia sources. I am astonished. You do not consider Al-Fakhr Al-Razi authentic? He is very well known and among the greatest Olamaa in Sunni scholars. His great tafsir (Tafsir Alkabir) is very famous and among the top five Sunni Tafsirs. Why do you consider it not authentic in this case? Is it not because it says Umar was not inline with the prophet in this case and you do not simply like it? Was Umar infallible?

This ahadith say that the Mutah was not prohibited. Some of the ahadith of Sahih Bukhari and Muslim say that Mutah was prohibited (though with the contradictions I have already talked about). When there is a difference in ahadith, one should compare them with Quran unless they want to give wrong superiority to one of the ahadith above Quran. In Quran no verse can be found on prohibition of Mutah. Therefore, It is clear that the first type of hadith is inline with the Quran.

Yes, Umar (r.a) did enforce the ban on Mutaah - not because he invented the ban - he was implementing Prophet Muhammad's ahadith.

Had Umar not invented the ban on Mutah he would not say �two types of Mut'a were (legal) during the time of the Prophet and I forbid them both� this is a very clear sentence. It is not possible to interpret it in different ways.

why would we have numerous ahadith by other sahabah

On the contrary, Umar (r.a) was perfectly in line with the Propet's commandments when he enforced the ban on Mutaah. Refer to the numerous ahadith that other sahaba narrated, (and yes, I find myself repeating here) all happen to be in line with what Umar did, by fluke? Oh, ofcourse, I can hear u loud and clear, according to you, none of those respected sahaba were correct?

 Among the sahabah full correctness only belongs to Ali (as) because he with his wife Fatima (as) and Hasan (as) and Husain (as) were the only infallible people after the death of the ptophet (as). In the other thread I have provided parts of evidences, reasons and proofs for this claim. The other sahabah do not deserve being followed because of fallibility, though whatever due respect one may concern. Nobody can even be compared to Ali (as) in this regard.

And no, Umar was not infallible, but he was an extremely God-Fearing, God Concious man, who lived and breathed the sunnah. Alhamdulilah, I and other muslims have faith in the trust Prophet Muhammad had in him.

What do you mean by trust here?! The prophet Mohammad (as) had trust in every individual of Ummah.

And Qur'an does not allow Mutaah at all, and please dont give me the verses on Nikaah, and twist them to mean that they are talking about a 'temporary' marriage. When they are not. There is no 'temporary' in marriage.

Neither I bring a verse from Quran without evidence and proof, nor do I twist the meaning. I have presented ahadith under the verse 4:24 from authentic Tafasir. This shows that they have discussed Mutah under this verse. Are you saying you understand the Arabic structure of 4:24 more than Al-Fakhr Al-Razi?

Furthermore, if the Quran does not allow Mutaah at all, why the Prophet allow it at all? The prophet was infallible and did not act or talk in contrary to the Quran even for one moment.  Let me explain to you what you are doing, you are accusing the prophet of allowing what Quran did not allow at all for the sake of defending Umar, unfortunately.

Nobody is saying Mutaah was illegal since the start!!!!

In the previous paragraph you saind Quran does not allow Mutaah at all. Here you say nobody says it was illegal since the start.

Just like Alcohol wasnt illegal from the start!!!! Mutaah was practised during the Prophet's time until he banned it!!! So Umar (R.a) is clearly referring to the time period when it was not banned!!!! The early days of Islam !!!! How does it in anyway mean he invented the ban???

Mutah and Alcohol have nothing to do with each other. I do not know who has invented such imagination while you can not find such similarity even in Quran. I do not repeat myself here. I have posted why they are not similar according to the Quran.

If Umar (r.a) had done that, surely people would have questioned him? We have instances of when a man questioned Umar about some cloth he recieved from the bait-al-maal.... We have an instance when an old woman questioned Umar (r.a) about him fixing the Mahr amount - in both cases he humbly answered his challengers, and in the case of the old woman, even corrected himself. . . so its not like they would keep quiet had he invented a ban on Mutaah.

I have read it is written in Tarikh Al-Tabari that Omran Ibn Savadeh came to Umar and gave him reports of people complaining about this decision of Umar.

Like this case in many cases, however, Umar was neither humble nor did he correct himself. It is not bad to refer to the most important example at this point: Umar and Abubakr were questioned seriously by Ahlulbayt, many of Sahabah, and many Muslims when they unfortunately ignored the will of Allah (swt) and his messenger (as) with respect to AhlulBayt and Ali (as) after the death of the prophet (as), the black story of Saghife in Islam which led to its pick some years later when Hussain (as) was killed wildly in Karbalaa by so called Muslims.

So all the sahabah that you dont like, didnt act according to sunnah?

In the first place, only those (from sahabah and Muslims) who loved the infallible Ahlul-Bayt and respected them acted according to sunnah and only those who followed infallible Ahlul-Bayt acted according to the prophet�s will. It is not the matter of what I and/or anybody personally like or not. This is what can be proved from Quran, sunnah, hadith, history and intellect.

None of sahabah, and generally none of Muslims, would be authorized to sit on the prophet�s chair and continue to guide people as his successor unless those who are given such authority by Allah (SWT) and his messenger (sawa). These authorized people are infallible Ahlul-Bayt. This was what the prophet (as) clarified in numerous different ways. There is no doubt that acting according to the Quran + loving and following infallible Ahlul-Bayt were the prophet �s will to Muslims. Pure sunnah of the prophet (as) could only be known through infallible Ahlulbayt (as).

Okay, perhaps not all - but what about the 10 sahabah that were given the glorious prediction of Jannah in thier lifetimes? They did not follow sunnah 100% ??? Umar is one of them.

1-      Umar did not obey the prophet (as) 100% even when the prophet was alive. How do you expect him following the sunnah 100% after prophet�s death?

2-      Umar was not following the sunnah 100% when he was questioned by Muslims and in some cases he used to correct himself. These prove that he had already deviated from the sunnah that in some cases he had to correct his deviation. How do you say following the sunnah was 100% fulfilled by him? N% according to sunnah + (100-N)% through corrections?!!!  How do you claim that even all deviations were recognized at all? And even if recognized, do you think he corrected all of them? If yes you are wrong:

3-      As I said before Umar and Abubakr and some other people were the ones who ignored obvious will of Allah (SWT) and his messenger (as) about Ali (as) for being the reference after the prophet for Muslims and people for not being led astray (like Haroon (as) in the absence of Moses(as) for bani Israel). Umar never corrected himself in this case while he knew what he was doing and the complaints did never change his mind in this case.

 And I do not understand your statement in bold at all. If u could kindly re-word it.