Biblical Prophecies About Muhammad |
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Servetus
Senior Member Male Joined: 04 April 2001 Location: United States Status: Offline Points: 2109 |
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�yes servetus - my point is that ishmael cannot be viewed as the father of arabs, and that the "great nation" which God promised would issue from him, is not in fact the arab nation.� Edited by Servetus |
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AhmadJoyia
Senior Member Joined: 20 March 2005 Status: Offline Points: 1647 |
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Here is what Jewish tradition tells us about the link between Ishmael and Arabs " Hagar, a daughter of Pharaoh, gave birth to Ishmael, who would become the father of the Arabs, according to both Jewish and Muslim tradition." http://www.jewishbulletin.ca/judaism/index.html Not only this, hitorically speaking, many Jewish scholars, such as Rabbi Abraham Ibn Ezra, a 12 century Jewish scholar have always linked Ishmael with Islam as Ishaq with Judaism. Even before him, we see Rav Sa'adia Ga'on, the tenth-century rabbinical leader whose Arabic translation of the Bible enjoyed unchallenged authority and popularity among the Jews, also clearly joining the links. Here is another interesting article by Jewish encyclopedia describing Kedar, the son Ishmael: "One of the sons of Ishmael (Gen. xxv. 13; I Chron. i. 29). The name is also applied in Scripture to the tribe that sprang from him, and is likewise used for the Bedouins generally, whose characteristic traits are ascribed to Kedar (Cant. i. 5; Isa. xxi. 16, xlii. 11, lx. 7; Jer. ii. 10, xlix. 28; Ezek. xxvii. 21). While very little is known of Kedar, the head of the tribe, his posterity, called also the "Bene Kedar" (Isa. xxi. 17), are described as barbarous tribes in connection with Mesech. "Woe is me," says the Psalmist (Ps. cxx. 5), "that I sojourn in Mesech, that I dwell in the tents of Kedar!" According to other passages, they appear to have been rich in flocks of sheep and goats, in which they traded with the Syrians (Ezek. xxvii. 21; Jer. xlix. 49). They dwelt in tents of black hair (Cant. i. 5) in the midst of the wilderness of Arabia, and were known as skilful archers (Isa. xxi. 17). But they also settled in villages or towns (Isa. xlii. 11). According to Mohammedan tradition, Kedar ("Ḳaidhar") was the ancestor of Mohammed; and it is through him that Mohammed's descent is traced to Ishmael (Caussin de Perceval, "Essai," i. 175). http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=156&let ter=K&search=kedar Edited by AhmadJoyia |
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fredifreeloader
Guest Group Joined: 17 February 2006 Location: United Kingdom Status: Offline Points: 456 |
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ahmad - you said: "For example, you provided the meaning of 'jesse' as equivalent to 'wealthy', where as there are other multiple meanings of the same word; one source says it mean "the Lord exists", something closer to "Lord hears", and another one says it mean "firm, or a gift"." --------- in other words these unspecified sources do not give the meaning "God will hear". your reference to twotot is neither here nor there, as i was not talking about comparisons of the parallels of names and the meanings of names, i was giving the meaning of the name. now it is only natural, as a muslim, that you should try to appropriate the characteristics of Christ to muhammad. qualities such as judgment (although i have already shown that the judgement spoken of in isaiah 11 can only belong to Christ), righteousness and faithfulness. the latter two characteristics also belong to God, as our God is a covenant God, establishing covenants in righteousness and carrying them out through faithfulness. however you have singularly failed to address the other aspects of the prophecy-----, namely the conditions on earth which will result from the advent of the person described, the peace and safety which will prevail throughout creation, v.6-9, the geographical changes which will take place, v.15, and the historical events, namely the regathering of israel v. 11-12, and the cessation of internal wrangling among the jews, and the cutting off of the enemies of judah, v.13, and the new order in the middle east, namely the domination of israel over the rest, v.14 -----none of this occurred with muhammad! --not only that, his modern-day followers are doing their very utmost to prevent some of it happening at all! basically all that there is to link this passage of the bible to muhammad is the notion that "jesse is a contraction of ishmael" and even this is only on the basis that muhammad is descended from ishmael. (it also does not take onto account the fact that jesse is the predecessor of Christ) ------now it has come to my attention that there is no genealogy of muhammad in the quran - this being the case (unless you can prove otherwise) can you point to any clear statement in the quran which indicates that muhammad is descended from ishmael? Edited by fredifreeloader |
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for i am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth - romans 1: 16
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Servetus
Senior Member Male Joined: 04 April 2001 Location: United States Status: Offline Points: 2109 |
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�on the subject of the genealogy of muhammad, do we find such a thing in the quran? i dont remember reading one� �------now it has come to my attention that there is no genealogy of muhammad in the quran - this being the case (unless you can prove otherwise) can you point to any clear statement in the quran which indicates that muhammad is descended from ishmael?� Consider starting with Quran 2:129, Fredi, but do note in advance that this reference is not as obvious as is the lack of foreskin on any given adult Arab male. Does one need a literal reminder of the �sign� of the Abrahamic and, by extension, Ishmaelite covenant? But anyway, in this respect, and even if there were no linkages, one could say that the Quran, in large part, apparently takes St. Paul�s warning (to Timothy) and does not concern itself or its readers, fortunately, with �endless genealogies.� It seems that those records are kept elsewhere. As a matter of academic interest, why should one have to point to the Quran for such genealogical proofs, Fredi? According to Heinrich Graetz (as I recall), when the above-mentioned Jews arrived in Arabia from a recently destroyed Jerusalem and managed to establish blood ties to the resident Arabs, they did not exclusively refer to Biblical genealogical records. Obviously, some, in fact the lion�s share of history is not to be found either in the Bible or the Quran. The great Roman (Jewish) historian, Flavius Josephus, did not rely exclusively upon the Bible for some of his complex and comprehensive records. From my time on this board, I understand that, unlike the average Protestant Christian, Muslims, at least Sunni Muslims, are not sola scriptura and do not rely upon the Quran alone. They have, at their disposal, a vast corpus of extra-Quranic literature, including the ahadith and records from such generally respected (in the West) historians as Ibn al-Tabari and Ibn-Khaldun. Before I brought the Jewish historian, Heinrich Graetz, into this discussion as one in a series of proofs which links Muhammad to Ishmael, AhmadJoyia had offered to provide Arab sources. Perhaps now would be a good time to do so, Ahmad? If the Jews are capable of writing their histories, I think the Arabs are capable as well. Servetus |
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fredifreeloader
Guest Group Joined: 17 February 2006 Location: United Kingdom Status: Offline Points: 456 |
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servetus - 2: 129 seems a good reference, i will give it some thought time permitting and come back to it. it seems to depend on the presence of both abraham and ishmael in mecca. it would also seem to refer to a later date than when ishmael is alleged to have first been taken there, as muslims say he was only a baby at the time, and so could not have joined in prayer with his father or "raised the foundation of the house" with him (2: 127)
now you seem to be laying great stress on the fact of circumcision, implying ? that it indicates inclusion in the covenant, but genesis 17: 12 says that every male in abrahams household was to be circumcised , including those "born in his house" -(see eliezer of damascus -genesis 15: 2,3) and those "bought with money of any stranger, which is not of thy seed" ---now the covenant was between God, abraham and his seed after him -17: 10, so excluded an indeterminate number of those actually circumcised -----now verses 19 and 21 clearly show that the continuation of the covenant would be through isaac and his seed after him. there is no indication that ishmael is included in the covenant. the fact that ishmael was circumcised does not include him in the covenant |
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for i am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth - romans 1: 16
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AhmadJoyia
Senior Member Joined: 20 March 2005 Status: Offline Points: 1647 |
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My dear, the whole notion of having 'same meaning' for the same word used at numerous places is a week logic, if not flawed as I have already shown you, not only through historical veracity of the occassions of the occurances of the word at two places, but as well through an example. Even now a days a simple word has multiple meanings; could this mean the name for the two is different? I don't think so. The reference to twotot is a direct one to substantiate this concept and not "neither here nor there". Hence your critic, sololy on the 'meaning' of the word is on thin ice.
I think bro Servetus has already provided you with a befitting reply on this. I would rather go a step in a different direction ask you to account for differences in geneologies mentioned by the different gospel accounts? Secondly, on the issue of foreskin and circumcision, I don't think covanent or no covanant has anything to do with the keeping of the traditions, especially if such are divinely ordained. The fact that many arab tribes used to practice it even before the advent of Islam, can also be a good clue in this link. Edited by AhmadJoyia |
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fredifreeloader
Guest Group Joined: 17 February 2006 Location: United Kingdom Status: Offline Points: 456 |
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ahmad - if you want to prove that jesse is a contraction of ishmael, you will have to produce something without question marks - that is the bottom line. then once you have produced this, you will then have to establish beyond any doubt that the jesse in isaiah 11 is in fact ishmael son of abraham and not jesse father of david, if, that is, you wish to take this to a higher level than just another piece of muslim wishful thinking. we on the other hand are not required to produce anything at all. we know that davids father was called jesse, nowhere referred to as ishmael, and we know that abrahams son was called ishmael, nowhere referred to as jesse. saying "oh well muhammad was righteous, and he judged the poor with equity just like the guy in isaiah 11..." will just not do - you cannot pick and choose snippets here and there, passing over the rest of the prophesy or ignoring it as you are doing, and hope to appeal to any rational mind ----////---if you do not think the bulk of the prophesy is literal, perhaps you might like to outline briefly exactly how it was fulfilled in muhammad i was not criticising solely on the meaning of the name. in fact i mentioned it as an aside.......---------also there is no burial ground mentioned in the chapter - the word in v.10 is rest/resting-place/abode, referring to the place where he is - it has nothing to do with death-------you raised a number of other points which are irrelevant to the issue of "muhammad in the bible?" |
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for i am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth - romans 1: 16
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Servetus
Senior Member Male Joined: 04 April 2001 Location: United States Status: Offline Points: 2109 |
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�now you [Servetus] seem to be laying great stress on the fact of circumcision, �� I am not meaning to interrupt, but please know that I only mention circumcision as one in a series of indications that Muhammad can be physically linked first to Ishmael and then to Abraham. For statements of proofs that Muhammad and his progeny, or �Nation,� or �Ummah,� is directly connected to Ishmael, I refer first to Heinrich Graetz and then to Moses Maimonides, among others. �now you seem to be laying great stress on the fact of circumcision, implying ? that it indicates inclusion in the covenant �� Again not meaning to interrupt, but I might have been more careful in my wording. Unless and until I want to involve myself in a complex game of Biblical Twister, or of convolutions in which the vouchsafed and God-given rights of the first-born are, through an at times surreptitious switching of hands, conferred instead upon the second-born, I know better than to participate in discussions concerning the details of the �covenant.� I shall simply conclude by saying, in the Biblical manner, that as for me and my house, we shall take St. Paul�s advice to Timothy and not involve ourselves, beyond a point, in controversies related to �endless genealogies.� Furthermore, we have heard and at least to a certain degree have understood: �And as for Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him ... and I will make him a great nation.� [KJV] (Genesis 17:20) That said, I trust you will understand if I now excuse myself from this discussion and from this thread. I have enjoyed talking to you and thank you for your contributions. Best regards, Servetus |
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