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Marriage/Divorce

Printed From: IslamiCity.org
Category: Religion - Islam
Forum Name: General Islamic Matter
Forum Description: Discuss Islamic matters/issues that not covered by other sub catagories
URL: https://www.islamicity.org/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=14406
Printed Date: 22 November 2024 at 6:26am
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Topic: Marriage/Divorce
Posted By: inquisitive
Subject: Marriage/Divorce
Date Posted: 19 March 2009 at 5:58pm
Salaam

a man pronounces proceeds to get a legal divorce, but has no intention of divorcing his wife islamically. their imam informs him that although it wasn't his intention, he did in fact, inadvertently initiate a talaq. is that sound?

the man and wife later encounter many issues in their marriage and decide to call it quits. a talaq is finally pronounced by the husband and the two part ways. the woman remarries another, and that relationship ends in divorce. the first husband wants to resume a relationship with her.

will they still have one strike left or will they start anew?

I hope someone can shed some light on this quickly.

Thanks

Wa Salaam



Replies:
Posted By: savant
Date Posted: 19 March 2009 at 10:32pm
confused:
 
Quote a talaq is finally pronounced by the husband and the two part ways
mean all three talaqas are given by husband.
 
Quote The woman remarries another, and that relationship ends in divorce
mean definately woman re-marries after 3 talaqas and consuming iddat(around 4 months)
 
Quote the first husband wants to resume a relationship with her
which relationship, they are already apart; if iam not wrong.
 
Quote Will they still have one strike left or will they start anew?
which strike; nothing left, if all my above perceptions are correct.


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Never Give up


Posted By: inquisitive
Date Posted: 20 March 2009 at 4:36am
Savant, thank you for the attempt, but that doesn't answer my question.
The first husband never said 3 talaqs. He in inadvertently initiated one, and later on actually said to his wife "i divorce you".  the wife went through the iddat, thereafter there was no reconcilement. The wife later remarried and unfortunately, that relationship also ended in divorce. NOW, the first husband would like to marry her again.

If they remarry, will they have one strike (talaq) left, or will they start anew (clean slate)?

 


Posted By: Saladin
Date Posted: 21 March 2009 at 12:19pm
I think it'll be a fresh start [Allah knows best] but why would any right thinking woman even think of remarrying such a guy (one who's concerned about how many talaqs he's got left)? Playing around with the Words of God and the life of a woman....... STRIKE OUT!




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'Trust everyone but not the devil in them'


Posted By: Nausheen
Date Posted: 23 March 2009 at 9:51pm
Originally posted by inquisitive inquisitive wrote:

Savant, thank you for the attempt, but that doesn't answer my question.
The first husband never said 3 talaqs. He in inadvertently initiated one, and later on actually said to his wife "i divorce you".  the wife went through the iddat, thereafter there was no reconcilement. The wife later remarried and unfortunately, that relationship also ended in divorce. NOW, the first husband would like to marry her again.

If they remarry, will they have one strike (talaq) left, or will they start anew (clean slate)?

 
 
 To the best of my knowledge, when she completed the period of Iddat and her husband did not take her back, she was free to marry another. At this point the marriage with the first husband was completely dissolved.
 
If the second husband divorces her, after they had consumated their marriage, and she completes her period of iddat, she is again free to marry anyone, including her first husband.
At this point, when she enters into a new wedlock they have 3 strikes not 1 Smile
 
And Allah knows best.
 
Just adding one comment. Muslims should strive not to have disposable marriages. It is unhealthy for the society and the soul!
 
 


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<font color=purple>Wanu nazzilu minal Qurani ma huwa

Shafaa un wa rahmatun lil mo'mineena

wa la yaziduzzalimeena illa khasara.
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