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Help me! Isaiah 50:1-11

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Topic: Help me! Isaiah 50:1-11
Posted By: islamhearted
Subject: Help me! Isaiah 50:1-11
Date Posted: 15 October 2009 at 2:52pm
Is this JESUS?

Please look at the HEBREW BIBLE for the translation, not any other.

Hi...

Well let me show you the HEBREW BIBLE...the new versions of this is just mistranslated...just like how they mistranslated Isaiah 53 to deceive people:

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1050.htm

Supposably it is the build up to his crucifixion.

I STRONGLY suggest that you look at Isaiah 49. Where is says "and ZION said"
Zion = land of Jerusalem.
Surely christians are a bit unsettled by the idea of God 'foresaking' Zion.
'Apostle Paul' created Christianity based on these verses and his interpretation of Isaiah 53.
Remember Jesus APPARENTLY said 'My God, My God why have you foresaken me?'.....This is questionable....it seems like an edit to suit Isaiah 49's quote...where Zion is speaking...not Jesus!!

But it is so confusing....I would be grateful if someone could patch this issue up.? It is reeaalll confusing.

I need a smart individual to help me out here.
Even if it was a description of Jesus, it doesn't pose a threat to Islam...but I want you to read on to the end of Isaiah 53, and tell me if Isaiah 53 is about Israel and not Jesus...I genuinely believe Isaiah 53 is about Israel, Messiahtruth confirms this..

But it makes it hard to believe that the servant in Isaiah 50 is Israel because:

http://www.geocities.com/nakdimonspage/isaiah53pt1rts.html



Replies:
Posted By: Akhe Abdullah
Date Posted: 16 October 2009 at 10:04am
As Salamu Alaikum Islamhearted,Welcome to the forum,you might want to go to introduction(Who am I)and introduce yourself to are virtual Ummah.May Allah Bless you.Im sorry I cant help you the Bible confusses me too.


Posted By: elisheba
Date Posted: 12 February 2011 at 6:13am
A formula to use in studying is...whatever does not match the Tanakh  -  is an erroneous translation.


Posted By: Cyrusgames
Date Posted: 14 February 2011 at 11:20am
Islamhearted,
 
I have been taught that this is referring to both Israel and Jesus.
 
Isaiah is writing about Israel. They were in exile in Babylon and God was going to redeem them and bring them home to Israel. The prophet Isaiah talks of Israel as a individual entity, an innocent  person who is suffering unjustly. I think Isaiah means God would transform their suffering in exile into a sacrifice, and make Israel a blessing for all nations. See the Jewish interpretation here: http://web.archive.org/web/20071212211718/http://www.geocities.com/logic_faith/prophecies_files/suffering_servant.htm - http://web.archive.org/web/20071212211718/http://www.geocities.com/logic_faith/prophecies_files/suffering_servant.htm
 
Now, it is obvious how this refers to Jesus. The one despised and rejected by mankind, he: "Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed."
 
And here is an important one for a Christian interpretation:
"Yet it was the LORD�s will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the LORD makes his life an offering for sin..."
 
What is compelling about this passage for Christians is how close this image is to the suffering of Jesus.
Isaiah may have only spoke these words only believing they were for the nation of Israel, but they have significant theological relevance for Christians nonetheless.
If God could will that Israel should suffer for the sins of His people, then God could also will that His Son should suffer too. The idea is the same whether we talk of Israel or Jesus. The sacrifice is the end of sin and it opens the way for God's people and the world to be redeemed and blessed.
 
 

 



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