Marriage/Divorce |
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Nausheen
Moderator Group Female Joined: 10 January 2001 Status: Offline Points: 4251 |
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Posted: 23 March 2009 at 9:51pm |
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To the best of my knowledge, when she completed the period of Iddat and her husband did not take her back, she was free to marry another. At this point the marriage with the first husband was completely dissolved.
If the second husband divorces her, after they had consumated their marriage, and she completes her period of iddat, she is again free to marry anyone, including her first husband.
At this point, when she enters into a new wedlock they have 3 strikes not 1
And Allah knows best.
Just adding one comment. Muslims should strive not to have disposable marriages. It is unhealthy for the society and the soul!
Edited by Nausheen - 23 March 2009 at 9:53pm |
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<font color=purple>Wanu nazzilu minal Qurani ma huwa
Shafaa un wa rahmatun lil mo'mineena wa la yaziduzzalimeena illa khasara.[/COLOR] |
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Saladin
Senior Member Male Joined: 04 September 2007 Location: Sri Lanka Status: Offline Points: 575 |
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I think it'll be a fresh start [Allah knows best] but why would any right thinking woman even think of remarrying such a guy (one who's concerned about how many talaqs he's got left)? Playing around with the Words of God and the life of a woman....... STRIKE OUT!
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'Trust everyone but not the devil in them'
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inquisitive
Starter Joined: 19 March 2009 Location: United States Status: Offline Points: 2 |
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Savant, thank you for the attempt, but that doesn't answer my question.
The first husband never said 3 talaqs. He in inadvertently initiated one, and later on actually said to his wife "i divorce you". the wife went through the iddat, thereafter there was no reconcilement. The wife later remarried and unfortunately, that relationship also ended in divorce. NOW, the first husband would like to marry her again. If they remarry, will they have one strike (talaq) left, or will they start anew (clean slate)? |
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savant
Groupie Joined: 14 February 2009 Status: Offline Points: 98 |
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confused:
mean all three talaqas are given by husband.
mean definately woman re-marries after 3 talaqas and consuming iddat(around 4 months)
which relationship, they are already apart; if iam not wrong.
which strike; nothing left, if all my above perceptions are correct. Edited by savant - 19 March 2009 at 10:33pm |
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Never Give up
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inquisitive
Starter Joined: 19 March 2009 Location: United States Status: Offline Points: 2 |
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Salaam
a man pronounces proceeds to get a legal divorce, but has no intention of divorcing his wife islamically. their imam informs him that although it wasn't his intention, he did in fact, inadvertently initiate a talaq. is that sound? the man and wife later encounter many issues in their marriage and decide to call it quits. a talaq is finally pronounced by the husband and the two part ways. the woman remarries another, and that relationship ends in divorce. the first husband wants to resume a relationship with her. will they still have one strike left or will they start anew? I hope someone can shed some light on this quickly. Thanks Wa Salaam |
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