Marriage/Divorce

Salaam

a man pronounces proceeds to get a legal divorce, but has no intention of divorcing his wife islamically. their imam informs him that although it wasn't his intention, he did in fact, inadvertently initiate a talaq. is that sound?

the man and wife later encounter many issues in their marriage and decide to call it quits. a talaq is finally pronounced by the husband and the two part ways. the woman remarries another, and that relationship ends in divorce. the first husband wants to resume a relationship with her.

will they still have one strike left or will they start anew?

I hope someone can shed some light on this quickly.

Thanks

Wa Salaam

Savant, thank you for the attempt, but that doesn't answer my question.
The first husband never said 3 talaqs. He in inadvertently initiated one, and later on actually said to his wife "i divorce you".  the wife went through the iddat, thereafter there was no reconcilement. The wife later remarried and unfortunately, that relationship also ended in divorce. NOW, the first husband would like to marry her again.

If they remarry, will they have one strike (talaq) left, or will they start anew (clean slate)?

 

inquisitive wrote: Savant, thank you for the attempt, but that doesn't answer my question. The first husband never said 3 talaqs. He in inadvertently initiated one, and later on actually said to his wife "i divorce you".  the wife went through the iddat, thereafter there was no reconcilement. The wife later remarried and unfortunately, that relationship also ended in divorce. NOW, the first husband would like to marry her again. If they remarry, will they have one strike (talaq) left, or will they start anew (clean slate)?

Edited by Nausheen - 23 March 2009 at 9:53pm